I ran a fixed-effects regression and I am not quite sure about the interpretation category which it belongs to (i.e. level-level and so on), due to a paper interpreting it differently from what I think is correct.
The DV is a ratio: Number of sentences including a keyword / Total number of sentences
The IV of interest is a ratio as well: (aspired performance - potential performance) / stock price
The IV reads as a preformance pressure when it is positive. In other words, when IV is 0.01: the pressure to perform better is 1% of stock price.
From the regression I get a coefficient of 0.007.
I interpret it as a level-level case as neither variable is logarithmized: 1 unit increase in x c.p. leads to a 0.007 unit increase in y -> 1 percentage point increase in x c.p. leads to a 0.007 percentage point incrase in y
The paper I was speaking of suggests a different interpretation however: 1 percent increase in x leads to a 0.7% increase in y.
Can someone help me out here?
Yes
No, we cannot interpret the results in terms of percentages unless we use logs.
This is incorrect for the same reason.