I searched the answer for this question, i got various useful links but when i implemented the idea, i am getting wrong answer.
This is what I understood :
If m is prime, then it is very simple. Inverse modulus of any number 'a' can be calculated as:inverse_mod(a) = (a^(m-2))%m
but when m is not prime, the we have to find the prime factors of m ,
i.e. m= (p1^a1)*(p2^a2)*....*(pk^ak). Here p1,p2,....,pk are the prime factors of m and a1,a2,....,ak are their respective powers.
then we have to calculate :
m1 = a%(p1^a1),
m2 = a%(p2^a2),
.......
mk = a%(pk^ak)
then we have to combine all these remainders using Chinese Remainder Theorem (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_remainder_theorem)
I implemented this idea for m=1000,000,000,but still i am getting Wrong Answer.
Here is my explanation for m=1000,000,000 which is not prime
m= (2^9)*(5^9) where 2 and 5 are m's prime factors.
let a is the number for which have to calculate inverse modulo m.
m1 = a%(2^9) = a^512
m2 = a%(5^9) = a^1953125
Our answer will be = m1*e1 + m2*e2
where e1= { 1 (mod 512)
0 (mod 1953125)
}
and e2= { 1 (mod 1953125)
0 (mod 512)
}
Now to calculate 'e1' and 'e2' , I used Extended Euclidean Algorithm. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extended_Euclidean_algorithm
The Code is :
void extend_euclid(lld a,lld b,lld& x,lld& y)
{
if(a%b==0)
{
x=0;
y=1;
return ;
}
extend_euclid(b,a%b,x,y);
int tmp=x;
x=y;
y=tmp-(a/b)*y;
}
Now e1= 1953125*y and e2=512*y;
So, Our final answer will be = m1*e1 + m2*e2 .
But after doing all this, I am getting wrong answer.
please explain and point out any mistakes which I have made while understanding Chinese Remainder Theorem .
Thank You Very Much.
If you're trying to compute a^(-1) mod p^k for p prime, first compute a^(-1) mod p. Given an x such that ax = 1 (mod p^(k-1)), you can "Hensel lift"---you're looking for the y between 0 and p-1 such that a(x + y p^(k-1)) = 1 (mod p^k). Doing some algebra, you find that you're looking for the y such that a y p^(k-1) = 1 - ax (mod p^k)---i.e. a y = (1 - ax)/p^(k-1) (mod p), where the division by p^(k-1) is exact. You can work this out using a modular inverse for a (mod p).
(Alternatively, simply notice that a^(p^(k-1)(p-1) - 1) = 1 (mod p^k). I mention Hensel lifting because it works in much greater generality.)